Do we have moral obligations to ourself?
Posted: Mon Oct 26, 2015 12:41 am
On this forum the majority of persons practice some form of utilitarianism, including myself. The grounds of utilitarianism has changed many times over, in its relatively short history, often in adjustment to some criticism. This topic is concerned with the sects of "Preference," and "Welfare" (Harris) utilitarianism.
For those who don't know;
Preference Utilitarianism (PU) weighs utility by how many interests are abided by (for positive values) or against (for negative values). For this post, the important fact is that this form of utilitarianism is based upon what the moral patient thinks is good for them.
"welfare" Utilitarianism (WU) weighs utility by the effect an action has on the welfare of an individual, and as Harris gracefully points out "you can have an opinion on wellbeing, and you can be wrong about it." What he is saying is that utility is not weighed by the opinions of the moral patients.
A situation was posed to me some time ago when I affirmed PU, "There are wives who, often under religious mentality's, think it is best for them to be subservient to there husbands."
This situation highlights the difference between the two schools of thought. By PU it is clear that this is not morally bad, because the moral patients (the wives) do not have an interest in being non-subservient to there husbands. However by WU it is clear that there is still a moral objection, the wives are just wrong about how to maximise there wellbeing.
This is also interesting when applied to other situations, such as "Is it morally wrong to consume food that is known to be bad for your health?"
There are objections to consider regarding how your ill-health will effect those close to you, as well as how much good you would be able to do if you where not ill, but I am ignoring these as is suggested by the title of this topic. Does the moral agent have a moral obligation in which they are the moral patient?
By PU it would appear to be no, because there is consent, and no interest is gone against, or at least the moral agent thinks that other interests in favour of eating the food of ill health out weigh the interests not abided by. However by WU this would not matter, the food ultimately has a greater ill-effect on wellbeing than not consuming such food, and the moral agent is therefore wronged.
Tell me what you think.
For those who don't know;
Preference Utilitarianism (PU) weighs utility by how many interests are abided by (for positive values) or against (for negative values). For this post, the important fact is that this form of utilitarianism is based upon what the moral patient thinks is good for them.
"welfare" Utilitarianism (WU) weighs utility by the effect an action has on the welfare of an individual, and as Harris gracefully points out "you can have an opinion on wellbeing, and you can be wrong about it." What he is saying is that utility is not weighed by the opinions of the moral patients.
A situation was posed to me some time ago when I affirmed PU, "There are wives who, often under religious mentality's, think it is best for them to be subservient to there husbands."
This situation highlights the difference between the two schools of thought. By PU it is clear that this is not morally bad, because the moral patients (the wives) do not have an interest in being non-subservient to there husbands. However by WU it is clear that there is still a moral objection, the wives are just wrong about how to maximise there wellbeing.
This is also interesting when applied to other situations, such as "Is it morally wrong to consume food that is known to be bad for your health?"
There are objections to consider regarding how your ill-health will effect those close to you, as well as how much good you would be able to do if you where not ill, but I am ignoring these as is suggested by the title of this topic. Does the moral agent have a moral obligation in which they are the moral patient?
By PU it would appear to be no, because there is consent, and no interest is gone against, or at least the moral agent thinks that other interests in favour of eating the food of ill health out weigh the interests not abided by. However by WU this would not matter, the food ultimately has a greater ill-effect on wellbeing than not consuming such food, and the moral agent is therefore wronged.
Tell me what you think.